_postman
04-29-2008, 03:00 PM
Hello
I have the 1988 issue of On Fairy-Stories and have noticed something of a contradiction (if I am reading it correctly, which I may well not be).
It is here: Tolkien writes:
behind the fantasy real wills and powers exist, independent of the minds and purposes of men (my emphasis) (p18)
and
the realization [sic], independent of the conceiving mind, of imagined wonder” (my emphasis) (p18);
Yet, we read:
It is…essential to a genuine fairy-story…that it should be presented as ‘true’” (my emphasis) (p18),
and
Faërie begins; Man becomes a sub-creator (my emphasis) (p25)
My question is how can man become a sub-creator if fantasy, or Faërie, is independent of the conceiving mind? How can man become a creator/sub-creator of anything without concieving it/being conscious of it/with consciousness being independent?
Thanks.
Postman
I have the 1988 issue of On Fairy-Stories and have noticed something of a contradiction (if I am reading it correctly, which I may well not be).
It is here: Tolkien writes:
behind the fantasy real wills and powers exist, independent of the minds and purposes of men (my emphasis) (p18)
and
the realization [sic], independent of the conceiving mind, of imagined wonder” (my emphasis) (p18);
Yet, we read:
It is…essential to a genuine fairy-story…that it should be presented as ‘true’” (my emphasis) (p18),
and
Faërie begins; Man becomes a sub-creator (my emphasis) (p25)
My question is how can man become a sub-creator if fantasy, or Faërie, is independent of the conceiving mind? How can man become a creator/sub-creator of anything without concieving it/being conscious of it/with consciousness being independent?
Thanks.
Postman