Originally I thought I had Saruman's motives figured out regarding the whole 'waking Carahdras/controlling the storm thing.' I figured he knew Gandalf would want to avoid Moria ("If the mountain defeats you, will you risk the more dangerous road?....Moria, you fear to go that way....You know what the dwarves awoke, shadow and flame.") so by trying to block the pass of Caradhras he figured Gandalf would go through the Gap of Rohan, and close to Isengard. Makes sense right?
Well, on the production team commentary track, Mark Ordesky says that Saruman's motive was to force Gandalf through Moria in order to get him killed by the Balrog so the Fellowship would be defenseless without him. This makes no sense whatsoever. It makes huge assumptions about what will happen in Moria. First off, if Pippin hadn't caused all the noise they'd have gone through scot-free. Next, if Saruman assumes the Balrog will kill Gandalf, the logically assumption is to guess that it would kill the whole Fellowship. What were the odds that Gandalf and the Balrog would simultaneously take each other out? Chances were far better that one or the other would win. Assuming the Balrog had killed Gandalf, it would have killed all the others, probably taken the Ring and certainly not given it to Saruman (or even Sauron) who he had absolutely no alliegance with (and probably even no knowledge of). Nice plan Saruman! You must play craps.
I think Mr. Ordesky is a little cornfused.



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